Did Oakland let Jacksonville score on purpose?

• mhs95_06

  Tied at 31, Oakland kicked off with about 1:50 left. Jacksonville got a good return into FG range. On the first play after that, Jacksonville runs thru a gaping hole for a TD. Did Oakland let them score on purpose to get the ball to get the ball back to try to send it to OT? Oakland had one timeout left and the ball was on the 30, so no gains on three running plays would have left a long 47 yd FG try and 20-30 sec left using the one TO.
• Ironman92

  

  I'm not sure.....but I was thinking it. Being at the 30 would be a 47 yarder......I would want them to get inside the 25 before I even considered it.
  
  As soon as he broke through I was yelling for him to slide on the 2. If he does that it's essentially 2 snaps...take two knees and kick a 20 yard straight FG to win it......scoring gave the Raiders 1:27 seconds with a TO to score.
  
  Maybe not conventional....but it was the higher % IMO
• mhs95_06

  I thought that the Raiders should have run blitzed to try to make it more than 47 yds for the FG, then if they broke thru then let them score to get the ball back. Maybe they did blitz and picked the wrong places to blitz!
• gerb131

  

  All I know is Tom Cable is going to hit someone.
• outdoorsman

  No, Oaklands defense just sucked that bad.
• wildcats20

  

  No but apparently there was a phantom roughing the passer call earlier in the game that lead directly to a TD for Jax.
• outdoorsman

  There was just another one in the Philly / Dallas game. The hit was very clean. Refs are lost on what to do.
• Ironman92

  

  what play? which QB?
• wildcats20

  

  Ironman92;598541 wrote:what play? which QB?

  
  There were a few questionable hits on Vick that were called. But there also a few that were definitely the correct call.
  
  I don't know what play he was talking about though