Question for Bible Scholars

• pmoney25

  

  So Yesterday I was watching History Channel about Ancient Aliens and how people believe that we were visited in our primitive times by aliens and that's how a lot of ancient places were developed(Stonehenge,Pyramids..etc..)
  
  They also brought up how different civilizations all across the world have similar stories of people(Gods) from the stars coming to visit and that influenced religion.
  
  One interesting thing they brought up was the line in Genesis. "And God said, let us make man in our own image." Why is the plural Our used? Obviously most will point to the Father,Son,Holy spirit argument but that concept only came about after Jesus so that couldn't really work. Another is that it was common language back then and the translation into English makes it sound different than what it was suppose to mean.
  
  I believe he was talking to himself or possibly the Angels but it is interesting to think about that other gods existed/Exist and maybe the Hebrew GOD is just the head honcho or that maybe what we think of as Gods are really just advanced beings from another planet who at the time seemed like Gods to ancient man.
• CenterBHSFan

  

  What you said just reminds me of that line from "The Fourth Kind" where the voice says something like "I Am God".
  
  Interesting thinking, for sure.
• jhay78

  

  The Hebrew for God is "Elohim", which is a plural form- I think it's referred to as a "plural of majesty", grammatically speaking. So I think that may be why the plural pronouns are used.
  Then again, when God speaks elsewhere in the prophets, etc., it's usually singular ("I am the LORD", etc.). So I guess I don't know.
• fan_from_texas

  pmoney25 wrote: One interesting thing they brought up was the line in Genesis. "And God said, let us make man in our own image." Why is the plural Our used? Obviously most will point to the Father,Son,Holy spirit argument but that concept only came about after Jesus so that couldn't really work. Another is that it was common language back then and the translation into English makes it sound different than what it was suppose to mean.

  I'll answer the second part first. The Hebrew uses 'Elohim', which is clearly plural (you can tell from the 'im' at the end, pronounced 'eem'). It isn't a translation error--it's clearly and intentionally plural.
  

  Obviously most will point to the Father,Son,Holy spirit argument but that concept only came about after Jesus so that couldn't really work.

  Why wouldn't that work? In Christianity, the Trinity is coexistent and co-eternal, meaning that all three have been around forever. Pursuant to Christian doctrine, it would be weird if God didn't refer to Himself in the plural in that situation.
• jmog

  Yes, FFT has it "right".
  
  Those denominations that believe in the trinity believe that all 3 parts are eternal, so they were around at/before creation, the trinity didn't start when Jesus was born.
• jhay78

  

  fan_from_texas wrote:
  

  Obviously most will point to the Father,Son,Holy spirit argument but that concept only came about after Jesus so that couldn't really work.

  Why wouldn't that work? In Christianity, the Trinity is coexistent and co-eternal, meaning that all three have been around forever. Purusant to Christian doctrine, it would be weird if God didn't refer to Himself in the plural in that situation.

  +1
• berry

  FFT is correct.
  
  And Chuck probably wanted to remain anonymous.
• Glory Days

  

  CenterBHSFan wrote: What you said just reminds me of that line from "The Fourth Kind" where the voice says something like "I Am God".
  
  Interesting thinking, for sure.

  gee thanks, now i just got the chills. haha that voice and stuff creeped me out.